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Is zero even or odd?

Y

YD

Jan 1, 1970
0
I read in sci.electronics.design that Nicholas O. Lindan <[email protected]>


I've seen v/(x) used; it's fairly evident what it means. I just found
that decimal 175 is an 'overscore' character, ¯, which means that v/¯(x)
could be used.

Not all newsreaders or fontsets may be able to render that correctly.
Though I doubt anyone is still using 7-bit ASCII.
How about) for cube root?

There, you see? It became a ) for me.

- YD.
 
B

Bill Smythe

Jan 1, 1970
0
Gactimus said:
I know 0 is neither negative or positive but what about odd/even? I think
it's even.

Of course it is. There exists a whole number X such that X*2=0. Thus, 0 is
even.

Bill Smythe
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
As it can be divided by 2 without a remainder, it is obviously even.

Er..., it can also be divided by every other number (rational,
irrational, and imaginary) without a remainder, although some of us
are amused by the strange concept of dividing nothing and the absurd
idea that there may be a `remainder'. Then comes the wild assertion
that when a number is divided by nothing, it becomes infinite.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
The divisor would have to be something smaller than 0 like -2.
Therefore zero is both even and negative.

Whoa! A new concept: -0. Let's make up some other numbers. I suggest
wizzad and fugawe. I'd have suggested Arunda, but I believe some
obscure African group already uses that in their alphabet.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
This is a troll. *Negative*? Can I have some of the drug you're
smoking? :)

That's no good Randy, no matter how much you buy, you still have
nothing. Coincidentally with constant use the measurable IQ approaches
zero as a limit.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
It's not a prime, because a prime can
only be divided by itself and 1.
0 can't be divided by itself, but
can be divided by everything else.
An anti-prime?
John
Perhaps a superprime. `antiprime' is as mysterious as - 0.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
Sure it can: 0 / 0 = 0 * (1 / 0) = 0 * infinity = 1

It works if the only three numbers in the universe are
0, 1, and infinity -- A number system that seems very
suited to usenet.
Add to that the troubling thought that 1/0, 1/1, 0/1, and 0/0 are all
rational numbers. If 1/0 = `infinity' how do we decide if there is any
remainder? Looks like there should be a remainder of 1. If that is so,
how do we know it has really been divided by 0?
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
There is no lack of rigour in the definition of infinity. Read anbout
the work of Cantor, Dedekind and others.

Do you have similar `readings' covering 0?
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
Zero is even. You cannot divide by zero. Limits are not division.
Infinity is not a number. Computers bugger up the system.

--- Shawn
Shawn, I am equally convinced that it is neither even or odd. Though I
will admit that those who need to decide are rather odd.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
Except for the fact that: 0 / 0 = undefined

Or actually more correct: n / 0 = undefined

Really, Al Z? Where did you get that doctorate in math? Various
middle eastern types have worked hard to see that was not the case.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
You apparently have stumbled on something else you know damn little
about. In case you need help with this , you might note that "/" is NOT
an operator on the integers, it is the "inverse" of a multiplication
operator. Inverse is a well-defined concept but not necessarily a
function, it is a set theoretic mapping. E.G. m/n={ q: m=q*n} by
definition, so that m/n which is actually a set which can be empty, a
singleton, or infinite. In the case of m/n, it is then m/n = F^-1(m)
where F(x)= n*x. Your reasoning would lead one to believe /: I x I -> I
is a function, which it isn't.

Ah, the inverse , like 1/0 is inverse of 0/1? Is 0/0 the inverse of
0/0? And 1/1, the inverse of 1/1.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
Sure, you can have *another* meaning to the / operator in a different
context, but this aint that context. This discussion is about a/b as
usually understood in arithmetic.

a/b ? Now your getting into complicated stuff.
 
V

vonroach

Jan 1, 1970
0
You guys are arguing two different things. The argument that 0/0 is the set
of all integers/reals/whatever you are using is the set theory response to
the question. However, the more commonly used form is the algebraicly
accepted argument that states that division is a function of the forms: Z /
Z -> Q, R / R -> R, etc. In this definition, division by 0 is undefined for
all Z or R, including 0. So, you are both correct, but arguing different
things.
Then infinity is undefined?
 
J

John Woodgate

Jan 1, 1970
0
I read in sci.electronics.design that Franz Heymann <notfranz.heymann@bt
openworld.com> wrote (in said:
There is no lack of rigour in the definition of infinity. Read anbout
the work of Cantor, Dedekind and others.

Indeed: I was referring to the lack of rigour in '1/0 = infinity'.
 
N

Nicholas O. Lindan

Jan 1, 1970
0
vonroach said:
Now you say 0= -1^1/2? You are using your imagination.

No, I think you are the first to say that, at least in this thread.

There are more imaginary numbers in the usenet than are counted
in your philosophy.
 
R

robert j. kolker

Jan 1, 1970
0
vonroach said:
Er..., it can also be divided by every other number (rational,
irrational, and imaginary) without a remainder,

irrelevent. The -definition- of an even integer is an integer equivalent
to zero mod 2. Given any integer k != 0 we can always find an even
multiple of k. We can also find an odd multiple of k.

Bob Kolker
 
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